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Nursing Flashcards

755 cards across 132 source notes. Choose a topic and click any card to reveal its answer.

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Basic Structures

Anatomy and Physiology
5 cards
What are the five levels of biological organization?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

Cell, tissue, organ, organ system, and organism.

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What are the four basic tissue types?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous.

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What is the difference between a tissue and an organ?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

A tissue is a group of cells working together; an organ contains multiple tissue types performing specific functions.

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Which tissue type forms protective surfaces and organ linings?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

Epithelial tissue.

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Which tissue type supports, binds, and protects body structures?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

Connective tissue.

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Cardiovascular System

Anatomy and Physiology
17 cards
Which side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Right side.

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Which side of the heart pumps oxygen-rich blood to the body?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Left side.

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What is the function of the atria?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Receive blood returning to the heart.

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What is the function of the ventricles?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Pump blood out of the heart.

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What is the correct pathway of blood through the heart and lungs?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Right atrium → right ventricle → lungs → left atrium → left ventricle → body.

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What is the difference between arteries and veins?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Arteries carry blood away from the heart; veins return blood to the heart.

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Where do gases, nutrients, and wastes exchange between blood and tissues?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Capillaries.

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Which blood cells transport oxygen?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Red blood cells using hemoglobin.

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What is the primary function of platelets?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Help form blood clots to stop bleeding.

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What is the difference between systole and diastole?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Systole is ventricular contraction; diastole is ventricular relaxation and filling.

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How does aging commonly affect the cardiovascular system?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Increased arterial stiffness, reduced cardiac reserve, and less efficient blood pressure regulation.

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What is orthostatic hypotension?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

A drop in blood pressure when standing or becoming more upright.

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What is atherosclerosis?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Plaque buildup in arterial walls that can restrict blood flow.

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What is the difference between coronary artery disease and a heart attack?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

CAD restricts coronary blood flow; a heart attack causes heart muscle injury from prolonged ischemia.

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What is heart failure?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

The heart cannot pump or fill effectively enough to meet the body's needs without elevated pressures.

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What is atrial fibrillation?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

An irregular heart rhythm that increases the risk of blood clots and stroke.

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What should a CNA do if a resident develops new chest pain or pressure?03-application / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Activate the facility's emergency response and summon immediate help.

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Blood Pressure

Anatomy and Physiology / Cardiovascular
2 cards
What two variables primarily determine mean arterial pressure?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance.

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How might dehydration reduce blood pressure?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Lower blood volume can reduce venous return and cardiac output.

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Cardiac Output

Anatomy and Physiology / Cardiovascular
3 cards
What is the cardiac output formula?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Heart rate × stroke volume.

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What is stroke volume?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Blood ejected by one ventricle per beat.

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Why can an extremely high heart rate reduce cardiac output?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Too little ventricular filling can lower stroke volume.

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Systemic Vascular Resistance

Anatomy and Physiology / Cardiovascular
3 cards
What happens to SVR when arterioles constrict?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Resistance increases.

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What happens to pressure when SVR rises and cardiac output stays constant?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Arterial pressure generally increases.

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What vessel property has a major influence on SVR?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / cardiovascular
Answer

Arteriolar diameter and tone.

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Digestive System

Anatomy and Physiology
20 cards
What is the primary function of the digestive system?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Break down food, absorb nutrients and water, and eliminate undigested waste.

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What is the alimentary canal?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Continuous digestive tract extending from the mouth to the anus.

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What are the main accessory digestive organs?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas.

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What is mastication?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Chewing food into smaller pieces.

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What is peristalsis?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Coordinated, wave-like muscle contractions that move material through the digestive tract.

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What is the function of the epiglottis during swallowing?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Helps protect the airway as food passes toward the esophagus.

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What is chyme?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Partially digested food mixed with gastric secretions.

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What are the three parts of the small intestine?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.

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Where does most nutrient absorption occur?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Small intestine.

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What is the purpose of intestinal villi and microvilli?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Increase surface area for nutrient absorption.

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What is the main function of the large intestine?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Absorb water and electrolytes and form feces.

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What are the four main sections of the colon?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colon.

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Which organ produces bile?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Liver.

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What is the function of the gallbladder?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Store and concentrate bile, releasing it during digestion.

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What is the digestive function of the pancreas?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Produce digestive enzymes and bicarbonate for the small intestine.

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How can aging contribute to constipation risk?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Reduced mobility, medication effects, and inadequate fluid or fiber intake.

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What is fecal impaction?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

A mass of hardened stool lodged in the rectum or colon.

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What is GERD?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus causing symptoms or complications.

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What is the difference between diverticulosis and diverticulitis?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Diverticulosis is the presence of pouches; diverticulitis is inflammation of them.

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What should a CNA do if a resident vomits blood or passes black, tarry stool?03-application / anatomy-physiology / digestive
Answer

Summon immediate nursing help and follow emergency-response procedures.

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Endocrine System

Anatomy and Physiology
19 cards
What is the primary function of the endocrine system?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

Produce hormones that regulate body functions through chemical signaling.

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What are hormones?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

Chemical messengers that act on cells with appropriate receptors.

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Which gland links the nervous and endocrine systems?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

Hypothalamus.

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Why is the pituitary called the master gland?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

It releases hormones that regulate several other endocrine glands.

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Which gland produces melatonin?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

Pineal gland.

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Which gland produces thyroid hormones T3 and T4?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

Thyroid gland.

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What is the primary function of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

Increase blood calcium levels.

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Which hormones are produced by the adrenal medulla?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

Epinephrine and norepinephrine.

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What is the main function of cortisol?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

Help regulate metabolism and the body's stress response.

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What is the main function of aldosterone?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

Promote sodium retention and potassium excretion to regulate blood volume.

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What is the difference between insulin and glucagon?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

Insulin lowers blood glucose; glucagon raises blood glucose.

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What is negative feedback in the endocrine system?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

A response that counteracts a change to maintain homeostasis.

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What is an example of positive feedback?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

Oxytocin amplifies uterine contractions during childbirth.

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How does aging commonly affect endocrine function?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

Hormone secretion and tissue sensitivity may change, including reduced insulin sensitivity.

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What distinguishes type 1 from type 2 diabetes?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

Type 1 causes autoimmune insulin deficiency; type 2 involves insulin resistance and inadequate secretion.

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What are common signs of hypoglycemia?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

Sweating, shakiness, hunger, weakness, and confusion.

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What are common signs of hyperglycemia?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

Excessive thirst, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision.

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What is the difference between hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

Too little thyroid hormone versus excessive thyroid hormone activity.

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What should a CNA do if a resident becomes unresponsive with suspected hypoglycemia?03-application / anatomy-physiology / endocrine
Answer

Activate emergency response and never give food or liquids by mouth.

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Fluid Balance

Anatomy and Physiology
10 cards
What is fluid balance?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

Regulation of water and electrolytes within the body.

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What are the two major fluid compartments?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

Intracellular fluid and extracellular fluid.

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What is osmosis?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

Movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane toward greater effective solute concentration.

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Which organs primarily regulate water and electrolyte excretion?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

Kidneys.

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How does ADH affect urine production?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

It increases water reabsorption, reducing water loss through urine.

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What is the primary fluid-regulating action of aldosterone?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

Promotes sodium retention and potassium excretion, influencing extracellular fluid volume.

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How can reduced circulating fluid volume lower blood pressure?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

Reduced venous return can decrease stroke volume and cardiac output.

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What is the distinction between dehydration and hypovolemia?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

Dehydration is a body-water deficit; hypovolemia is reduced circulating extracellular fluid volume.

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Can a person have edema and inadequate effective circulating volume simultaneously?03-application / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

Yes. Fluid can accumulate in tissues while effective circulating volume remains inadequate.

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What should a CNA observe when monitoring fluid balance?03-application / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

Intake, output, weight changes, swelling, dizziness, and changes from baseline.

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Integumentary System

Anatomy and Physiology
15 cards
What are the two layers of the skin proper?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / integumentary
Answer

Epidermis and dermis.

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What is the primary function of the epidermis?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / integumentary
Answer

Provide a protective, water-resistant barrier.

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What structures are found in the dermis?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / integumentary
Answer

Blood vessels, nerves, sensory receptors, hair follicles, and glands.

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What is the function of the hypodermis?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / integumentary
Answer

Insulation, cushioning, and energy storage.

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What protein makes up most of hair and nails?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / integumentary
Answer

Keratin.

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Which cells produce melanin in the skin?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / integumentary
Answer

Melanocytes.

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How does sweating help regulate body temperature?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / integumentary
Answer

Evaporation of sweat removes heat from the body.

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What is the function of sebaceous glands?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / integumentary
Answer

Produce sebum to lubricate the skin and hair.

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How does the skin contribute to vitamin D production?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / integumentary
Answer

UVB exposure initiates vitamin D synthesis.

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How does aging affect the skin?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / integumentary
Answer

Skin may become thinner, less elastic, and slower to heal.

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What is a skin tear?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / integumentary
Answer

Separation of skin layers caused by friction, shear, or trauma.

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What is a contusion?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / integumentary
Answer

A bruise caused by bleeding beneath the skin.

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What causes a pressure injury?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / integumentary
Answer

Sustained pressure or pressure combined with shear.

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What causes shingles?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / integumentary
Answer

Reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus.

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What should a CNA do upon discovering unexplained bruising?03-application / anatomy-physiology / integumentary
Answer

Ensure resident safety, document observations, and report promptly; follow abuse-reporting requirements if suspected.

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Lymphatic and Immune System

Anatomy and Physiology
19 cards
What are the three main functions of the lymphatic system?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

Fluid balance, immune defense, and dietary fat absorption.

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What is lymph?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

Interstitial fluid that has entered lymphatic vessels.

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What is the primary function of lymphatic vessels?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

Collect excess tissue fluid and return it to the bloodstream.

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Does the lymphatic system have a central pump?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

No. Lymph moves through muscle activity, breathing, vessel contractions, and valves.

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What prevents backward flow of lymph?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

One-way valves in collecting lymphatic vessels.

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What is the main function of lymph nodes?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

Filter lymph and provide sites for immune responses.

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Where are common groups of lymph nodes located?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

Neck, armpits, and groin.

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What is the function of the spleen?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

Filter blood, remove aged red blood cells, and support immune defense.

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What is the primary function of the thymus?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

Support T lymphocyte maturation.

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What is the role of bone marrow in immunity?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

Produce blood cells and support B lymphocyte development.

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What is the difference between B cells and T cells?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

B cells support antibody production; T cells coordinate immunity or destroy infected cells.

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What is the difference between innate and adaptive immunity?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

Innate immunity responds rapidly and broadly; adaptive immunity is antigen-specific.

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What are the five classic signs of inflammation?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

Redness, warmth, swelling, pain, and loss of function.

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What are lacteals?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

Specialized intestinal lymphatic capillaries that absorb dietary fats.

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What is immunosenescence?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

Age-related changes in immune function.

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What is lymphedema?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

Swelling caused by impaired lymphatic drainage.

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What is the difference between lymphadenopathy and lymphadenitis?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

Lymphadenopathy is abnormal lymph nodes; lymphadenitis is node inflammation.

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Why can reduced mobility contribute to swelling?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

Less muscle activity reduces assistance to venous and lymphatic fluid return.

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What should a CNA do if swelling develops with spreading redness and fever?03-application / anatomy-physiology / lymphatic-immune
Answer

Report promptly and summon urgent nursing assessment.

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Musculoskeletal System

Anatomy and Physiology
15 cards
What are the two major divisions of the skeleton?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / musculoskeletal
Answer

Axial and appendicular skeletons.

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What structures make up the axial skeleton?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / musculoskeletal
Answer

Skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum.

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What structures make up the appendicular skeleton?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / musculoskeletal
Answer

Upper and lower limbs, shoulder girdle, and pelvic girdle.

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What are the three types of muscle tissue?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / musculoskeletal
Answer

Skeletal, smooth, and cardiac.

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What is the difference between tendons and ligaments?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / musculoskeletal
Answer

Tendons connect muscle to bone; ligaments connect bone to bone.

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What is the primary function of cartilage in joints?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / musculoskeletal
Answer

Provide smooth surfaces and cushioning to reduce friction.

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What are the five regions of the vertebral column?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / musculoskeletal
Answer

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.

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How many vertebrae are in the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar regions?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / musculoskeletal
Answer

7 cervical, 12 thoracic, and 5 lumbar.

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What is the function of red bone marrow?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / musculoskeletal
Answer

Produces red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

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How do skeletal muscles help regulate body temperature?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / musculoskeletal
Answer

Muscle contractions generate heat, including through shivering.

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How does aging commonly affect the musculoskeletal system?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / musculoskeletal
Answer

Reduced muscle mass, strength, flexibility, and bone density.

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What is the difference between osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / musculoskeletal
Answer

Osteoarthritis is a joint disease; rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune inflammatory disease.

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What is the difference between a sprain and a strain?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / musculoskeletal
Answer

A sprain injures ligaments; a strain injures muscles or tendons.

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What is a contracture?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / musculoskeletal
Answer

Persistent tightening of tissues that restricts joint movement.

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What should a CNA do when a resident develops sudden severe pain and cannot bear weight after a fall?03-application / anatomy-physiology / musculoskeletal
Answer

Do not attempt to stand or transfer them; summon nursing help immediately.

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Nervous System

Anatomy and Physiology
20 cards
What are the two major divisions of the nervous system?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system (PNS).

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What structures make up the CNS?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Brain and spinal cord.

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What is the primary function of the cerebrum?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Conscious thought, memory, sensory interpretation, and voluntary movement.

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What is the primary function of the cerebellum?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Coordination, balance, posture, and motor learning.

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What essential functions does the brainstem regulate?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Breathing, heart rate, consciousness, and other involuntary functions.

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What is the difference between sensory and motor nerves?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Sensory nerves carry signals toward the CNS; motor nerves carry commands away.

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How do sympathetic and parasympathetic activity differ?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Sympathetic supports fight-or-flight; parasympathetic supports rest-and-digest.

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What is the function of the myelin sheath?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Insulates axons and speeds nerve impulse transmission.

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What are neurotransmitters?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Chemical messengers that transmit signals between cells.

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What is a reflex?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

A rapid, often automatic response to a stimulus.

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How does aging commonly affect the nervous system?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Reaction times may slow, and some sensory and balance functions may decline.

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How does delirium differ from dementia?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Delirium develops acutely and often fluctuates; dementia usually develops gradually.

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How does Alzheimer's disease relate to dementia?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Alzheimer's disease is the most common cause of dementia.

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What is the difference between stroke and TIA?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Stroke causes brain infarction or hemorrhage; TIA causes transient ischemic symptoms without acute infarction.

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What does FAST stand for in stroke recognition?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call emergency services.

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What is Parkinson's disease associated with?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Loss of dopamine-producing neurons and movement difficulties.

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What is peripheral neuropathy?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Damage to peripheral nerves causing sensory changes, pain, or weakness.

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What should a CNA do during a seizure?03-application / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Protect from injury, time the event, summon help, and never restrain or place objects in the mouth.

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What is the difference between a spinal cord injury and a traumatic brain injury?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

SCI damages spinal nerve pathways; TBI damages the brain.

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What should a CNA do if an acute spinal injury is suspected?03-application / anatomy-physiology / nervous
Answer

Summon emergency help and avoid unnecessary movement unless required for immediate safety.

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Nutrition and Essential Nutrients

Anatomy and Physiology
6 cards
What are the six major nutrient categories?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

Carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water.

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What is the primary function of dietary protein?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

Building, maintaining, and repairing body tissues.

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Which vitamins are fat-soluble?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

A, D, E, and K.

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Which vitamins are water-soluble?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

B vitamins and vitamin C.

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Why is nutrition important for wound healing?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

Tissue repair requires adequate energy, protein, and nutrients.

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What should a CNA do when a resident has persistent poor intake?03-application / anatomy-physiology / foundations
Answer

Document observations and notify the nurse.

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Reproductive System

Anatomy and Physiology
20 cards
What are the primary functions of the reproductive system?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Produce reproductive cells and hormones and support reproduction.

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What are the primary male reproductive organs?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Testes.

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What are the primary female reproductive organs?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Ovaries.

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What hormone is primarily produced by the testes?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Testosterone.

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What hormones are primarily produced by the ovaries?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Estrogen and progesterone.

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What is spermatogenesis?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Production of sperm in the testes.

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Where do sperm mature and become stored?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Epididymis.

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What is the function of the vas deferens?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Transport sperm from the epididymis toward the ejaculatory ducts.

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What is the function of the prostate gland?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Produce fluid that contributes to semen.

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What is the function of the seminal vesicles?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Produce fructose-rich fluid that nourishes sperm.

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What is the function of the fallopian tubes?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Transport the oocyte; fertilization usually occurs there.

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What is the function of the uterus?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Support implantation and fetal development during pregnancy.

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What is the difference between the vagina and vulva?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Vagina is the internal muscular canal; vulva refers to external genital structures.

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What hormone surge triggers ovulation?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Luteinizing hormone (LH).

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What is the primary function of progesterone?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Prepare and maintain the uterine lining for pregnancy.

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What is the difference between prolactin and oxytocin during breastfeeding?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Prolactin stimulates milk production; oxytocin causes milk ejection.

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What is menopause?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Permanent end of menstrual periods, typically confirmed after 12 months without menstruation.

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What is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Noncancerous enlargement of the prostate that may restrict urine flow.

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What is pelvic organ prolapse?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Descent of pelvic organs due to weakened supporting tissues.

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What should a CNA do if a resident experiences vaginal bleeding after menopause?03-application / anatomy-physiology / reproductive
Answer

Report promptly to the nurse for further assessment.

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Respiratory System

Anatomy and Physiology
15 cards
What is the primary function of the respiratory system?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / respiratory
Answer

Supply oxygen to the blood and remove carbon dioxide.

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What is the function of the nasal cavity?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / respiratory
Answer

Filter, warm, and humidify inhaled air.

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Where does oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange occur in the lungs?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / respiratory
Answer

Across the alveoli and surrounding pulmonary capillaries.

Open note →
What happens to the diaphragm during inhalation?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / respiratory
Answer

It contracts and moves downward, increasing chest cavity volume.

Open note →
What happens to the diaphragm during normal exhalation?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / respiratory
Answer

It relaxes and moves upward as air leaves the lungs.

Open note →
What is the difference between ventilation and gas exchange?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / respiratory
Answer

Ventilation moves air; gas exchange transfers oxygen and carbon dioxide between alveoli and blood.

Open note →
What is the function of cilia in the respiratory tract?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / respiratory
Answer

Move mucus and trapped particles toward the throat for removal.

Open note →
What carries most oxygen through the bloodstream?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / respiratory
Answer

Hemoglobin in red blood cells.

Open note →
How does aging commonly affect the respiratory system?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / respiratory
Answer

Reduced chest-wall flexibility, respiratory reserve, and airway clearance.

Open note →
What is the difference between chronic bronchitis and emphysema?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / respiratory
Answer

Chronic bronchitis involves airway inflammation and excess mucus; emphysema damages alveolar walls.

Open note →
What happens to the airways during an asthma attack?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / respiratory
Answer

Airways narrow due to inflammation and tightening of surrounding smooth muscle.

Open note →
How does active pulmonary tuberculosis spread?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / respiratory
Answer

Through airborne particles released by a person with infectious TB.

Open note →
Why does pneumonia impair gas exchange?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / respiratory
Answer

Inflammation and fluid or other material in the alveoli interfere with oxygen transfer.

Open note →
What is a common cause of acute bronchitis?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / respiratory
Answer

Respiratory viral infections.

Open note →
What should a CNA do if a resident develops sudden severe breathing difficulty?03-application / anatomy-physiology / respiratory
Answer

Activate the facility's emergency response and summon immediate help.

Open note →

Sensory Organs

Anatomy and Physiology
20 cards
What are the five traditional senses?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Sight, hearing, taste, smell, and touch.

Open note →
What is the function of the cornea?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Refracts incoming light to help focus it on the retina.

Open note →
What is the difference between the iris and pupil?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

The iris controls pupil size; the pupil is the opening that admits light.

Open note →
What is the function of the retina?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Converts light into neural signals.

Open note →
What is the difference between rods and cones?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Rods support dim-light vision; cones support color and sharp detail.

Open note →
What does the optic nerve do?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Carries visual information from the retina to the brain.

Open note →
What are the three main regions of the ear?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Outer ear, middle ear, and inner ear.

Open note →
What are the three ossicles of the middle ear?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Malleus, incus, and stapes.

Open note →
What is the function of the cochlea?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Converts sound vibrations into nerve signals.

Open note →
What is the function of the Eustachian tube?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx and equalizes pressure.

Open note →
What part of the inner ear helps maintain balance?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

The vestibular system.

Open note →
What are the five basic taste qualities?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Sweet, sour, salty, bitter, and umami.

Open note →
Why can loss of smell affect taste?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Smell contributes significantly to flavor perception.

Open note →
What types of stimuli do skin sensory receptors detect?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Touch, pressure, vibration, temperature, and potentially damaging stimuli.

Open note →
What is presbyopia?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Age-related difficulty focusing on nearby objects.

Open note →
What is the difference between cataracts and glaucoma?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Cataracts cloud the lens; glaucoma damages the optic nerve.

Open note →
What type of vision does macular degeneration primarily affect?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Central vision.

Open note →
What is presbycusis?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Age-related hearing loss, commonly affecting high frequencies.

Open note →
What is the difference between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Impaired sound transmission versus inner-ear or auditory nerve damage.

Open note →
Why can reduced touch sensation increase injury risk?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / sensory
Answer

Heat, pressure, and other harmful stimuli may go unnoticed.

Open note →

Urinary System

Anatomy and Physiology
24 cards
What are the four major structures of the urinary system?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra.

Open note →
What is the primary function of the kidneys?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Filter blood, remove wastes, and regulate fluid and electrolyte balance.

Open note →
What is the correct pathway of urine through the urinary system?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Kidneys → ureters → bladder → urethra.

Open note →
What is a nephron?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

The functional unit of the kidney responsible for forming urine.

Open note →
What are the three main processes of urine formation?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion.

Open note →
What is the function of the ureters?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder.

Open note →
What is the function of the bladder?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Store urine until urination.

Open note →
What is the detrusor muscle?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Smooth muscle in the bladder wall that contracts to expel urine.

Open note →
What is the difference between internal and external urethral sphincters?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Internal is involuntary; external is under voluntary control.

Open note →
What causes the sensation of needing to urinate?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Bladder stretch receptors signal the nervous system as the bladder fills.

Open note →
What is the function of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Increase water reabsorption by the kidneys.

Open note →
What is the function of erythropoietin (EPO)?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Stimulate red blood cell production in bone marrow.

Open note →
How do the kidneys support calcium absorption?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Activate vitamin D into calcitriol, helping intestinal calcium absorption.

Open note →
How does aging commonly affect kidney function?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Reduced filtration reserve, concentrating ability, and medication clearance.

Open note →
What is the difference between acute kidney injury and chronic kidney disease?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

AKI develops suddenly; CKD is persistent kidney impairment.

Open note →
What is the difference between urinary retention and urinary incontinence?02-mechanisms / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Retention is incomplete emptying; incontinence is involuntary leakage.

Open note →
What is stress urinary incontinence?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Leakage during coughing, laughing, sneezing, or exertion.

Open note →
What is urge urinary incontinence?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Leakage associated with a sudden, compelling urge to urinate.

Open note →
What is overflow urinary incontinence?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Leakage associated with an inadequately emptied bladder.

Open note →
What is functional urinary incontinence?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Inability to reach or use the toilet in time due to functional barriers.

Open note →
What is a urinary tract infection (UTI)?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

An infection involving part of the urinary tract.

Open note →
What is pyelonephritis?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

An infection of kidney tissue, often caused by an ascending UTI.

Open note →
What is a cystocele?01-foundations / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Prolapse of the bladder into the vaginal wall due to weakened pelvic support.

Open note →
What should a CNA do if a resident suddenly cannot urinate and has severe bladder pain?03-application / anatomy-physiology / urinary
Answer

Report immediately and summon urgent nursing assistance.

Open note →

Neurological Observations

Assessments and Clinical Reasoning
3 cards
What does BE FAST stand for?01-foundations / assessment
Answer

Balance, Eyes, Face, Arms, Speech, Time.

Open note →
What is the response to sudden facial droop and new slurred speech?03-application / assessment
Answer

Activate emergency response for possible stroke.

Open note →
Why compare neurological findings with baseline?02-mechanisms / assessment
Answer

Chronic deficits differ from sudden changes needing escalation.

Open note →

Pain Assessment

Assessments and Clinical Reasoning
3 cards
Whose report is the primary source for pain intensity when communication is reliable?03-application / assessment
Answer

The resident's own report.

Open note →
What does 0 mean on the numeric pain scale?01-foundations / assessment
Answer

No pain.

Open note →
Name three nonverbal pain cues.01-foundations / assessment
Answer

Grimacing, guarding, and moaning or restlessness.

Open note →

Recognizing Patient Distress

Assessments and Clinical Reasoning
4 cards
What are the ABCs of emergency observation?03-application / assessment
Answer

Airway, breathing, circulation.

Open note →
What should a CNA do when a resident has sudden life-threatening symptoms?03-application / assessment
Answer

Activate emergency response, notify the nurse, assist within training.

Open note →
What does BE FAST stand for in stroke recognition?01-foundations / assessment
Answer

Balance, Eyes, Face, Arms, Speech, Time.

Open note →
What should a CNA do when a resident develops sudden stroke-like symptoms?03-application / assessment
Answer

Activate emergency response immediately, even if symptoms resolve.

Open note →

Vital Signs

Assessments and Clinical Reasoning
3 cards
Which features of respiration should be observed beyond rate?01-foundations / assessment
Answer

Rhythm, depth, effort, and signs of distress.

Open note →
Why is baseline more useful than a normal-range table alone?02-mechanisms / assessment
Answer

A meaningful change may occur within a typical reference range.

Open note →
What should accompany an abnormal vital-sign report?03-application / assessment
Answer

Symptoms, context, and relevant changes from baseline.

Open note →

Documentation and Charting

Clinical Skills and How-To
8 cards
What are the core qualities of good charting?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

Accurate, factual, timely, complete, and confidential.

Open note →
Should documentation be delayed until the end of every shift?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No. Chart promptly according to facility policy.

Open note →
May a CNA document care before performing it?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No. Chart only care actually provided.

Open note →
What should a CNA do after making a paper charting error?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Follow the approved correction procedure; never erase or conceal the entry.

Open note →
How are EHR errors corrected?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Through the authorized correction or addendum process.

Open note →
Does an incident report replace clinical documentation?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No. Relevant resident care must still be charted.

Open note →
Should a CNA write personal judgments in the resident's chart?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No. Record observable facts and relevant direct statements.

Open note →
What should a CNA document when a resident refuses care?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Care offered, resident's response, and actions taken.

Open note →

Bleeding, Shock and Injury Response

Clinical Skills and How-To / Emergency Response
3 cards
What is the immediate basic response to severe external bleeding?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Call for help and apply firm direct pressure, with PPE.

Open note →
Why is shock dangerous?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Tissues receive inadequate perfusion.

Open note →
What should you never do after suspected poisoning without direction?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Induce vomiting.

Open note →

Cardiac Arrest and CPR Response

Clinical Skills and How-To / Emergency Response
4 cards
Does gasping count as normal breathing?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No; agonal gasps are abnormal breathing.

Open note →
What is the initial response to unresponsiveness and absent normal breathing?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Activate emergency response, begin trained CPR, obtain an AED.

Open note →
Should a CNA delay indicated CPR to search for a resident's POLST form?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No. Follow the emergency protocol and promptly involve licensed staff.

Open note →
What should a CNA do when a known, valid, applicable DNR order prohibits CPR?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Do not initiate CPR; summon help and provide appropriate supportive care.

Open note →

Choking and Airway Obstruction

Clinical Skills and How-To / Emergency Response
4 cards
What indicates severe rather than mild choking?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Inability to cough effectively, speak, or breathe.

Open note →
What should you do if a choking person can cough effectively?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Encourage coughing and monitor.

Open note →
What must not be done for airway obstruction?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Blind finger sweeps.

Open note →
What should you do if a severely choking adult becomes unresponsive?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Begin CPR with chest compressions; check for a visible object before breaths.

Open note →

Fire Safety and Response (RACE, PASS)

Clinical Skills and How-To / Emergency Response
3 cards
What does RACE stand for?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish or Evacuate.

Open note →
What does PASS stand for?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep.

Open note →
When should a CNA attempt to use a fire extinguisher?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Only when trained, safe, and with a clear escape route.

Open note →

Seizure Response

Clinical Skills and How-To / Emergency Response
3 cards
What two actions must you never do during a seizure?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Restrain movements or place objects in the mouth.

Open note →
What seizure duration is an emergency threshold in the note?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Five minutes or longer for a convulsive seizure.

Open note →
What should be documented after a seizure?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Duration, movements, responsiveness, and injuries.

Open note →

Assisting with Feeding

Clinical Skills and How-To / Hygiene and Personal Care
5 cards
What must be verified before assisting with a meal?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Resident, diet, allergies, texture, liquids, and feeding precautions.

Open note →
Why should the CNA allow time between bites?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

To permit safe chewing and swallowing.

Open note →
Are straws appropriate for every resident with dysphagia?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

No. Follow the individualized swallowing plan.

Open note →
What should a CNA do if a resident begins coughing during feeding?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Stop feeding, observe safety, and obtain nursing help.

Open note →
What is the goal of feeding assistance beyond adequate intake?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

Preserve independence, comfort, and dignity.

Open note →

Dressing and Clothing Assistance

Clinical Skills and How-To / Hygiene and Personal Care
2 cards
Which side is dressed first when a resident has one-sided weakness?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

The weak or affected side.

Open note →
Which side is undressed first when a resident has one-sided weakness?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

The strong or unaffected side.

Open note →

Eyeglasses and Hearing Aid Care

Clinical Skills and How-To / Hygiene and Personal Care
2 cards
What should be checked before returning a hearing aid?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Condition, cleanliness, power, fit, and comfort.

Open note →
Why avoid water or unapproved cleaners on hearing aids?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

They can damage the device.

Open note →

Hair, Nail, Foot and Shaving Care

Clinical Skills and How-To / Hygiene and Personal Care
2 cards
Why are nail trimming and foot care restricted for some residents?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Diabetes, poor circulation, or neuropathy can increase injury risk.

Open note →
Where should moisturizer generally not be left on the feet?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Between the toes.

Open note →

Making an Occupied and Unoccupied Bed

Clinical Skills and How-To / Hygiene and Personal Care
3 cards
Why should soiled linen never be shaken?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

It can spread contamination.

Open note →
What is the main difference between occupied and unoccupied bedmaking?02-mechanisms / clinical-skills
Answer

The resident remains in the bed during occupied bedmaking.

Open note →
What is an essential final safety check after bedmaking?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Bed low as appropriate, resident safe, call light accessible.

Open note →

Oral Care and Denture Care

Clinical Skills and How-To / Hygiene and Personal Care
4 cards
Why is oral care important for dependent residents?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

It supports comfort, oral health, and infection prevention.

Open note →
What is important when caring for removable dentures?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Handle gently, clean as directed, and store safely in a labeled container.

Open note →
Should oral hygiene be omitted when a resident is NPO?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No. Follow the individualized oral-care plan without violating intake restrictions.

Open note →
What should a CNA do if a resident cannot safely rinse or spit?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Avoid oral rinsing and follow the prescribed aspiration-safe oral-care procedure.

Open note →

Perineal Care

Clinical Skills and How-To / Hygiene and Personal Care
2 cards
In which direction should cleansing generally proceed for female perineal care?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Front to back to reduce contamination.

Open note →
What should be done if new irritation or bleeding is noticed?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Report to the nurse.

Open note →

Routine Bathing

Clinical Skills and How-To / Hygiene and Personal Care
3 cards
What part of routine bathing is usually performed last?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Perineal cleansing.

Open note →
Why inspect skin folds during bathing?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Moisture and friction can cause irritation or breakdown.

Open note →
What should you do if a resident declines bathing?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Respect refusal, explore needs, and report as appropriate.

Open note →

Wound Dressings and Bandage Care

Clinical Skills and How-To / Hygiene and Personal Care
17 cards
What is the primary purpose of a wound dressing?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

Protect the wound, manage drainage, and support healing.

Open note →
What type of dressing is commonly used for moderate to heavy drainage?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Foam or calcium alginate, depending on the wound.

Open note →
What is the main purpose of a hydrogel dressing?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

Add moisture to relatively dry wounds.

Open note →
What happens when calcium alginate contacts wound drainage?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

It absorbs fluid and forms a gel.

Open note →
What type of wound is a transparent film generally suited for?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

A superficial wound with little drainage.

Open note →
What is wet-to-dry dressing removal?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

A form of mechanical debridement.

Open note →
May a CNA independently perform wound debridement?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No. It requires appropriately authorized clinical personnel.

Open note →
Should a CNA independently choose a wound dressing?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No. Follow the prescribed wound-care plan.

Open note →
What wound changes should a CNA report?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

New pain, redness, swelling, bleeding, unusual drainage, or odor.

Open note →
Can a CNA independently apply an over-the-counter ointment to an open wound?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No. Appropriate authorization and care-plan instructions are required.

Open note →
A wound is relatively dry and needs moisture added. Which dressing?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Hydrogel dressing.

Open note →
A wound produces moderate to heavy drainage and needs cushioning. Which dressing?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Foam dressing.

Open note →
A wound produces heavy drainage and needs highly absorbent material. Which dressing?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Calcium alginate dressing.

Open note →
A superficial wound has minimal drainage and needs a protective covering that can be checked on. Which dressing?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Transparent film dressing.

Open note →
A wound has delicate new tissue, and the dressing must not stick. Which dressing?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Non-adherent pad.

Open note →
A wound needs basic coverage and absorption of light drainage. Which dressing?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Gauze sponge.

Open note →
A wound has nonviable tissue, and mechanical debridement has been specifically ordered. Which traditional dressing method?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Wet-to-dry gauze dressing.

Open note →

Donning and Doffing PPE

Clinical Skills and How-To / Infection Control
2 cards
Why is the removal sequence for PPE important?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Contaminated surfaces can transfer organisms to skin or clothing.

Open note →
What must be performed after PPE removal?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Hand hygiene.

Open note →

Hand Hygiene

Clinical Skills and How-To / Infection Control
14 cards
When is hand hygiene required during routine resident care?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Before and after contact, before clean procedures, after bodily-fluid exposure, after gloves, and between dirty and clean tasks.

Open note →
Which method is generally preferred when hands are not visibly soiled?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

Alcohol-based hand rub.

Open note →
When should soap and water be used instead of alcohol-based hand rub?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

When hands are visibly dirty, after restroom use, before eating, and when required by infection-control protocols.

Open note →
What is the minimum soap-and-water scrubbing time?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

At least 20 seconds.

Open note →
Which areas are commonly missed during hand hygiene?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

Thumbs, fingertips, between fingers, and around nails.

Open note →
Why must you perform hand hygiene after removing gloves?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Gloves can become contaminated, and hands may be contaminated during removal.

Open note →
How should alcohol-based hand rub be applied?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Use the recommended amount, cover all hand surfaces, and rub until dry.

Open note →
Should alcohol-based hand rub be rinsed or wiped off?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No. Allow it to dry completely.

Open note →
What should you do during a C. difficile or norovirus outbreak?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Follow facility-specific hand hygiene requirements, including when soap and water is indicated.

Open note →
Does wearing gloves eliminate the need for hand hygiene?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No. Gloves never replace hand hygiene.

Open note →
What should you do if your hands develop cracks or irritation that interfere with hand hygiene?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Report the issue and follow approved skin-care or occupational-health guidance.

Open note →
When is alcohol-based hand rub generally preferred?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Most routine care when hands are not visibly soiled.

Open note →
How long should hands be scrubbed with soap and water?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

At least 20 seconds.

Open note →
Do gloves replace hand hygiene?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No; clean hands at indicated times including after glove removal.

Open note →

Occupational Exposure and Response

Clinical Skills and How-To / Infection Control
2 cards
What is the first action after a contaminated needlestick or splash?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Immediately perform appropriate first aid and report the exposure.

Open note →
Why is prompt reporting of blood exposure important?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Time-sensitive medical assessment and post-exposure measures may be needed.

Open note →

Measuring Blood Pressure

Clinical Skills and How-To / Measurements and Monitoring
3 cards
What does the first Korotkoff sound indicate?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

Systolic pressure.

Open note →
What does disappearance of Korotkoff sounds usually indicate in adults?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

Diastolic pressure.

Open note →
Why should the arm be supported at heart level?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Incorrect positioning can distort the reading.

Open note →

Measuring Height and Weight

Clinical Skills and How-To / Measurements and Monitoring
1 cards
Why use the same measurement method when tracking weight trends?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Consistency helps distinguish real change from measurement variation.

Open note →

Measuring Intake and Output

Clinical Skills and How-To / Measurements and Monitoring
5 cards
What is the net fluid balance formula?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

Measured intake minus measured output.

Open note →
What is the approximate mL equivalent of one US fluid ounce?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

30 mL.

Open note →
Does measured output include every route of fluid loss?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

No; breathing and sweating may be unmeasured.

Open note →
What is urinary retention?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

Inability to empty the bladder completely or at all.

Open note →
What should a CNA do when urine output is unexpectedly low or absent?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Check recording accuracy, observe for problems, and promptly report to the nurse.

Open note →

Measuring Oxygen Saturation

Clinical Skills and How-To / Measurements and Monitoring
4 cards
What does SpO₂ estimate?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

The percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen.

Open note →
Does normal SpO₂ rule out respiratory distress?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No. Symptoms and clinical condition must also be considered.

Open note →
What factors can affect pulse oximeter accuracy?02-mechanisms / clinical-skills
Answer

Movement, poor circulation, sensor placement, nail polish, and skin pigmentation.

Open note →
May a CNA independently increase oxygen flow because SpO₂ is low?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No. Report the finding and follow authorized emergency procedures.

Open note →

Measuring Pulse and Respirations

Clinical Skills and How-To / Measurements and Monitoring
5 cards
Where is the radial pulse palpated?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

On the thumb side of the wrist.

Open note →
Which fingers are used to check the radial pulse?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Index and middle fingers.

Open note →
What counts as one respiration?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

One complete rise and fall of the chest or abdomen.

Open note →
What should be observed in respirations beyond rate?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Rhythm, depth, effort, and distress.

Open note →
Why should respirations be observed discreetly?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Conscious attention can change breathing patterns.

Open note →

Measuring Temperature

Clinical Skills and How-To / Measurements and Monitoring
3 cards
Why must the temperature measurement route be recorded?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Expected readings and accuracy differ by route.

Open note →
What can temporarily affect an oral temperature reading?02-mechanisms / clinical-skills
Answer

Recent eating, drinking, smoking, or exercise.

Open note →
Why should temperature readings from different routes not be treated as identical?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Different routes may produce different values.

Open note →

Assisting with Ambulation

Clinical Skills and How-To / Mobility and Transfers
2 cards
What must be checked before ambulating a resident?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Care plan, assistance level, weight-bearing status, and tolerance.

Open note →
What symptoms require stopping ambulation and seeking help?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

New dizziness, weakness, pain, or instability.

Open note →

Bed-to-Stretcher Transfer

Clinical Skills and How-To / Mobility and Transfers
1 cards
What must be confirmed before a bed-to-stretcher transfer?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Staffing, transfer method, equipment stability, and restrictions.

Open note →

Dangling at Bedside

Clinical Skills and How-To / Mobility and Transfers
3 cards
Why dangle a resident at bedside before standing when directed?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

To observe tolerance to upright positioning and dizziness.

Open note →
What should happen if the resident becomes dizzy while dangling?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Assist to a safe position and notify the nurse.

Open note →
What should a CNA do if a resident becomes faint while dangling?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Stop, maintain support, assist to a safe lying position, and summon nursing help.

Open note →

Log Rolling a Resident

Clinical Skills and How-To / Mobility and Transfers
1 cards
What is the purpose of a log roll?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

Keep head, trunk, and hips aligned during turning.

Open note →

Range-of-Motion Exercises

Clinical Skills and How-To / Mobility and Transfers
2 cards
What should you never do during range-of-motion movement?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Force a joint past resistance or cause pain.

Open note →
Why is joint alignment important during ROM?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

To avoid injury while supporting mobility.

Open note →

Repositioning in Bed

Clinical Skills and How-To / Mobility and Transfers
2 cards
Why use a draw sheet or approved repositioning device?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

To reduce friction, shear, and unsafe lifting.

Open note →
What should determine repositioning frequency?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

The individualized care plan, tolerance, and skin risk.

Open note →

Safe Patient Transfers

Clinical Skills and How-To / Mobility and Transfers
2 cards
Why must transfer method follow the resident's care plan?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Required assistance and weight-bearing ability vary.

Open note →
When should manual transfer attempts stop?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

If the resident cannot participate safely as expected.

Open note →

Using a Gait Belt

Clinical Skills and How-To / Mobility and Transfers
2 cards
Can a gait belt be used to lift a resident's entire body weight?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No.

Open note →
What conditions may make a gait belt unsuitable?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Abdominal wounds, tubes, ostomies, or other restrictions.

Open note →

Using a Mechanical Lift

Clinical Skills and How-To / Mobility and Transfers
2 cards
What must match before use of a mechanical lift?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Lift, sling, attachments, weight capacity, and resident needs.

Open note →
May a resident be left unattended while suspended in a lift?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No.

Open note →

Using a Sit-to-Stand Lift

Clinical Skills and How-To / Mobility and Transfers
2 cards
What essential ability is required for most sit-to-stand lifts?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Resident participation and device-specified weight bearing.

Open note →
Are sit-to-stand lifts interchangeable with full-body lifts?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No; they serve different transfer needs.

Open note →

Wheelchair Transport and Positioning

Clinical Skills and How-To / Mobility and Transfers
2 cards
When should wheelchair brakes be locked?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

During stationary transfers and positioning.

Open note →
What must be checked before transporting a resident in a wheelchair?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Footrests, arms, alignment, brakes, and route safety.

Open note →

Anti-Embolism Stockings

Clinical Skills and How-To / Other Care Procedures
4 cards
Why avoid wrinkles or folds in anti-embolism stockings?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

They can create pressure or impair proper fit.

Open note →
Who determines whether and how long stockings are used?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

The prescribed care plan and clinical orders.

Open note →
Why might anti-embolism stockings be unsafe for a resident with peripheral arterial disease?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Compression may worsen impaired circulation.

Open note →
What should a CNA do if anti-embolism stockings cause pain or skin discoloration?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Stop application or remove as appropriate and notify the nurse promptly.

Open note →

Assisting with a Bedpan

Clinical Skills and How-To / Other Care Procedures
1 cards
What safety and dignity measures matter during bedpan assistance?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Privacy, safe positioning, call light access, prompt hygiene.

Open note →

Hot and Cold Therapy

Clinical Skills and How-To / Other Care Procedures
2 cards
What should a CNA monitor during ordered hot or cold therapy?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Skin changes, discomfort, and time or temperature limits in the care plan.

Open note →
Why should hot or cold therapy not be applied without authorization?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Temperature injury or contraindications may occur.

Open note →

Post-Mortem Care

Clinical Skills and How-To / Other Care Procedures
8 cards
What is the purpose of post-mortem care?01-foundations / clinical-skills
Answer

Preserve dignity, prepare the body, and support respectful transfer.

Open note →
Who must authorize post-mortem care before a CNA begins?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

The appropriate authorized staff member under facility policy.

Open note →
May a CNA independently pronounce death?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No.

Open note →
May a CNA independently remove IV lines, drains, or other medical devices after death?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No. Follow authorization and facility procedures.

Open note →
Why might post-mortem care need to be delayed or modified?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Medical examiner, donation, autopsy, or legal requirements.

Open note →
Should family members always be required to leave during post-mortem care?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No. Respect preferences and follow facility policy.

Open note →
What precautions apply during post-mortem care?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Standard Precautions and any additional required infection-control measures.

Open note →
What should be verified before transferring the body?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Correct identification, required documentation, authorization, and transfer instructions.

Open note →

Specimen Collection

Clinical Skills and How-To / Other Care Procedures
5 cards
What five checks prevent specimen collection errors?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Correct resident, specimen, container, label, and transport.

Open note →
Can every specimen be refrigerated if processing is delayed?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No; follow test-specific storage instructions.

Open note →
What distinguishes sputum from saliva?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Sputum comes from the lower respiratory tract after coughing.

Open note →
What must be verified before collecting sputum from a resident with suspected TB?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

Airborne precautions, approved collection location, and required respiratory protection.

Open note →
Should a CNA independently perform sputum induction?03-application / clinical-skills
Answer

No. It requires authorized personnel and appropriate infection-control procedures.

Open note →

Aphasia

Diseases and Conditions
3 cards
Does aphasia necessarily reduce intelligence?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

No; it impairs language abilities.

Open note →
What communication strategy helps residents with aphasia?03-application / diseases-conditions
Answer

Short clear speech, extra time, and appropriate communication aids.

Open note →
What is urgent about sudden new aphasia?03-application / diseases-conditions
Answer

It may be a sign of stroke requiring emergency response.

Open note →

Blood Loss

Diseases and Conditions
2 cards
Why can blood pressure be near normal during early serious blood loss?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

Compensatory increased heart rate and vasoconstriction.

Open note →
What is a possible late consequence of severe blood loss?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

Hypovolemic shock from reduced circulating volume.

Open note →

C. difficile Infection

Diseases and Conditions
2 cards
What common symptoms may suggest C. difficile infection?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

New watery diarrhea and abdominal discomfort.

Open note →
What prevention measures matter for C. difficile?03-application / diseases-conditions
Answer

Appropriate contact precautions and facility hand-hygiene protocols.

Open note →

Cancer

Diseases and Conditions
22 cards
What is cancer?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells that can invade tissues and spread.

Open note →
What is the difference between benign and malignant tumors?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

Benign tumors do not invade or metastasize; malignant tumors can.

Open note →
What is metastasis?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Spread of cancer from its primary site to distant tissues or organs.

Open note →
If breast cancer spreads to the lungs, what is it called?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Metastatic breast cancer.

Open note →
What is a carcinoma?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Cancer originating in epithelial tissue.

Open note →
What is a sarcoma?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Cancer originating in bone or connective and supportive tissues.

Open note →
What is leukemia?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Cancer generally originating in blood-forming tissue, often the bone marrow.

Open note →
What is lymphoma?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Cancer originating in lymphocytes.

Open note →
What are CNS cancers?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Malignancies originating in brain or spinal cord tissues.

Open note →
What is a carcinogen?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

An agent capable of causing cancer.

Open note →
What infections are associated with liver cancer?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

Chronic hepatitis B and hepatitis C infections.

Open note →
What infection is strongly associated with cervical cancer?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

Persistent high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) infection.

Open note →
What is the difference between cancer screening and diagnosis?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

Screening looks for possible disease; diagnostic testing investigates or confirms it.

Open note →
What is a biopsy?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Removal of cells or tissue for diagnostic examination.

Open note →
What does TNM stand for in cancer staging?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

Tumor, Nodes, Metastasis.

Open note →
What does Stage IV generally mean for many solid cancers?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

Cancer has spread to distant parts of the body.

Open note →
What is the difference between cancer stage and grade?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

Stage describes extent; grade describes cellular characteristics.

Open note →
What is chemotherapy?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Drug treatment that kills or inhibits cancer cells.

Open note →
What is immunotherapy?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Treatment that helps the immune system fight cancer.

Open note →
What is neutropenia?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

An abnormally low neutrophil count, increasing infection risk.

Open note →
What is palliative care?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Care focused on symptom relief, comfort, and quality of life.

Open note →
Can palliative care be provided alongside curative cancer treatment?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Yes. Palliative care can begin at diagnosis and continue during treatment.

Open note →

Dehydration

Diseases and Conditions
4 cards
What is dehydration?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

A deficit of body water.

Open note →
Which symptoms may suggest dehydration?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Thirst, dry mouth, weakness, dizziness, or reduced urine output.

Open note →
Why can dehydration occur without noticeable thirst in older adults?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

The thirst response may become less reliable with age.

Open note →
What symptoms suggest dehydration may require urgent escalation?03-application / diseases-conditions
Answer

New confusion, fainting, absent urination, or signs of shock.

Open note →

Dementia

Diseases and Conditions
3 cards
Is dementia a normal part of aging?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

No.

Open note →
How does delirium typically differ from dementia?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

Delirium is usually acute and fluctuating; dementia often develops gradually.

Open note →
What should a CNA do about sudden confusion in a person with dementia?03-application / diseases-conditions
Answer

Report promptly; do not assume it is usual dementia.

Open note →

Heart Failure (CHF)

Diseases and Conditions
7 cards
What is heart failure?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Impaired pumping or filling of the heart that can cause inadequate circulation or congestion.

Open note →
What is orthopnea?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Difficulty breathing while lying flat.

Open note →
What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

Sudden breathlessness that awakens a person from sleep.

Open note →
Why does heart failure cause peripheral edema?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

Increased venous pressure and fluid retention cause swelling.

Open note →
Why can heart failure cause nocturia?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

Fluid shifts into circulation when lying down, increasing nighttime urine production.

Open note →
Why is rapid weight gain concerning in heart failure?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

It may indicate worsening fluid retention.

Open note →
What should a CNA monitor in a resident with heart failure?03-application / diseases-conditions
Answer

Breathing, edema, weight, intake and output when ordered, and activity tolerance.

Open note →

HIV and AIDS

Diseases and Conditions
16 cards
What does HIV stand for?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Human Immunodeficiency Virus.

Open note →
What does AIDS stand for?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome.

Open note →
What is the difference between HIV and AIDS?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

HIV is the infection; AIDS is its most advanced stage.

Open note →
Which immune cells does HIV primarily attack?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

CD4 T lymphocytes.

Open note →
What CD4 count meets an AIDS diagnostic criterion?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Below 200 cells/mm³.

Open note →
Can someone have HIV without developing AIDS?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Yes. Effective treatment can prevent progression.

Open note →
What body fluids can transmit HIV?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Blood, semen, vaginal fluids, rectal fluids, and breast milk.

Open note →
Can HIV spread through hugging or sharing utensils?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

No. HIV is not transmitted through casual contact.

Open note →
Is HIV transmitted through the air?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

No. HIV is not an airborne infection.

Open note →
What is the HIV testing window period?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Time between exposure and when a test can detect infection.

Open note →
What is antiretroviral therapy (ART)?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Medication that suppresses HIV replication.

Open note →
What does U=U mean?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Maintained viral suppression prevents sexual HIV transmission.

Open note →
What is PrEP?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Medication taken before potential HIV exposure to prevent infection.

Open note →
What is PEP?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Medication started after potential HIV exposure to prevent infection.

Open note →
How soon must HIV PEP be started?03-application / diseases-conditions
Answer

As soon as possible, no later than 72 hours after exposure.

Open note →
What should a CNA do after a possible HIV needlestick exposure?03-application / diseases-conditions
Answer

Perform appropriate first aid, report immediately, and obtain urgent evaluation.

Open note →

Hypertension

Diseases and Conditions
2 cards
Does hypertension usually cause noticeable symptoms?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

Often no; it can be asymptomatic.

Open note →
What can long-standing hypertension damage?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Heart, brain, kidneys, eyes, and blood vessels.

Open note →

Hypotension

Diseases and Conditions
2 cards
What does hypotension describe?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Blood pressure abnormally low for the person's circumstances.

Open note →
Why might hypotension cause fainting?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

Insufficient blood flow to the brain.

Open note →

Incontinence

Diseases and Conditions
2 cards
What is urinary incontinence?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Involuntary leakage of urine.

Open note →
What two important consequences can incontinence have?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Skin moisture damage and loss of comfort or dignity.

Open note →

Latex Allergy

Diseases and Conditions
2 cards
What signs could indicate an immediate severe latex reaction?03-application / diseases-conditions
Answer

Hives, wheezing, breathing problems, or anaphylaxis.

Open note →
What is the distinction between irritant dermatitis and latex allergy?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

Irritant dermatitis is not itself an immune allergy.

Open note →

Multidrug-Resistant Organisms (MDROs)

Diseases and Conditions
2 cards
What is an MDRO?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

A microorganism resistant to multiple antimicrobial drugs.

Open note →
Why do MDROs affect precautions?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

They can spread in healthcare settings and complicate treatment.

Open note →

Orthostatic Hypotension

Diseases and Conditions
2 cards
What is the clinical BP-drop definition of orthostatic hypotension?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

At least 20 mmHg systolic or 10 mmHg diastolic within 3 minutes upright.

Open note →
What should be done if standing causes dizziness?03-application / diseases-conditions
Answer

Help the resident safely sit or lie down and report symptoms.

Open note →

Ostomies and Diversions

Diseases and Conditions
4 cards
How does a colostomy differ from an ileostomy?03-application / diseases-conditions
Answer

Colostomy diverts colon output; ileostomy diverts small-intestine output.

Open note →
What is a urostomy used for?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Diverting urine through a surgically created opening.

Open note →
Why is dehydration a particular concern with high-output ileostomies?02-mechanisms / diseases-conditions
Answer

Large fluid and electrolyte losses.

Open note →
What concerning change in stoma color requires immediate reporting?03-application / diseases-conditions
Answer

A stoma becoming dark purple, gray, or black.

Open note →

Pressure Injuries

Diseases and Conditions
3 cards
What characterizes a stage 1 pressure injury?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Intact skin with nonblanchable erythema or a comparable change in darker skin.

Open note →
What is an unstageable pressure injury?01-foundations / diseases-conditions
Answer

Depth is obscured by slough or eschar.

Open note →
Who determines pressure-injury staging?03-application / diseases-conditions
Answer

Qualified licensed clinicians, not CNAs independently.

Open note →

Care of Residents With Medical Tubing

Patient Care
4 cards
What must a CNA not independently change on oxygen equipment?03-application / patient-care
Answer

The prescribed oxygen flow rate.

Open note →
What signs at an IV site must be reported?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Redness, swelling, leakage, bleeding, or pain.

Open note →
What should a CNA do if a resident's feeding tube appears displaced?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Stop potentially disruptive care, protect the tubing, and notify the nurse promptly.

Open note →
May a CNA independently administer formula, water, or medications through a feeding tube?03-application / patient-care
Answer

No. Refer feeding-tube administration to authorized clinical personnel.

Open note →

Caring for Residents with Cancer

Patient Care
16 cards
What is the primary goal of person-centered cancer care?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Support comfort, safety, dignity, independence, and individual goals.

Open note →
What is cancer-related fatigue?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Persistent exhaustion that may not improve fully with rest.

Open note →
What should a CNA do when cancer pain worsens?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Observe, report promptly, and follow prescribed comfort measures.

Open note →
What is mucositis?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Inflammation or sores affecting mucous membranes, often after cancer treatment.

Open note →
What is neutropenia?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

An abnormally low neutrophil count, increasing infection risk.

Open note →
Why is fever concerning in a resident with neutropenia?03-application / patient-care
Answer

It may indicate a life-threatening infection.

Open note →
What is thrombocytopenia?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

A low platelet count that increases bleeding risk.

Open note →
What is anemia?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Reduced red blood cells or hemoglobin, potentially impairing oxygen delivery.

Open note →
What common cancer treatment side effects may affect eating?02-mechanisms / patient-care
Answer

Nausea, taste changes, mouth sores, and poor appetite.

Open note →
How can a CNA support a resident with cancer-related fatigue?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Allow rest, assist with activities, and encourage permitted independence.

Open note →
What is the primary goal of palliative care?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Relieve suffering and improve quality of life.

Open note →
Can palliative care accompany curative cancer treatment?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Yes. It can begin at any point during serious illness.

Open note →
How does hospice differ from general palliative care?02-mechanisms / patient-care
Answer

Hospice focuses on end-of-life comfort when cure is no longer the goal.

Open note →
What is an advance directive?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

A legal document describing healthcare wishes or designating a decision-maker.

Open note →
What should a CNA do if a resident reports uncontrolled symptoms?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Report promptly to the nurse and follow the individualized care plan.

Open note →
How should a CNA discuss prognosis with a resident's family?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Refer medical prognosis questions to authorized clinicians.

Open note →

Caring for Residents with HIV and AIDS

Patient Care
10 cards
What is the primary principle of caring for a resident with HIV?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Provide respectful, individualized, nondiscriminatory care.

Open note →
Does HIV status alone justify additional isolation precautions?03-application / patient-care
Answer

No. Standard Precautions apply unless another condition requires additional precautions.

Open note →
Can a CNA disclose a resident's HIV status to another resident?03-application / patient-care
Answer

No. HIV status is confidential medical information.

Open note →
What federal law protects people with HIV against disability discrimination?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA).

Open note →
How should a CNA respond to a coworker discriminating against a resident with HIV?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Report the discriminatory behavior according to facility procedures.

Open note →
What is HIV-related stigma?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Negative attitudes or discriminatory treatment toward people living with HIV.

Open note →
What is a respectful alternative to calling someone an AIDS victim?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Person living with HIV or AIDS.

Open note →
Should a CNA use gloves for routine social contact with a resident who has HIV?03-application / patient-care
Answer

No. Gloves are based on exposure risk, not HIV status alone.

Open note →
How should a CNA respond to questions about another resident's HIV status?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Protect confidentiality and do not confirm or disclose the diagnosis.

Open note →
What should a CNA do after an occupational blood exposure?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Perform appropriate first aid, report immediately, and obtain urgent evaluation.

Open note →

Communication Accommodations

Patient Care / Communication and Psychosocial
2 cards
What adjustments help residents with hearing difficulty?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Face them, reduce noise, speak clearly, and use aids.

Open note →
What is important when communicating with someone with receptive aphasia?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Use short statements and confirm comprehension.

Open note →

Culturally Responsive Care

Patient Care / Communication and Psychosocial
1 cards
How should cultural preferences be addressed in care?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Ask the individual rather than making assumptions.

Open note →

De-escalation and Conflict Resolution

Patient Care / Communication and Psychosocial
1 cards
What is an initial de-escalation priority?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Remain calm, listen, reduce stimulation, and maintain safety.

Open note →

Dementia Care

Patient Care / Communication and Psychosocial
4 cards
What should be considered when a resident with dementia becomes agitated?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Unmet needs such as pain, fear, toileting, or overstimulation.

Open note →
Why use predictable routines for dementia care?03-application / patient-care
Answer

They may reduce confusion and distress.

Open note →
Why must sudden confusion in a resident with dementia be reported?03-application / patient-care
Answer

It may indicate delirium, illness, or another acute change.

Open note →
How should instructions be adapted for residents with dementia?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Use clear language, simple steps, and adequate response time.

Open note →

Emotional and Family Support

Patient Care / Communication and Psychosocial
1 cards
What helps a distressed resident feel heard?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Active listening and acknowledgment without dismissing concerns.

Open note →

End-of-Life Care

Patient Care / Communication and Psychosocial
8 cards
What is the focus of comfort-oriented end-of-life care?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Dignity, symptom comfort, preferences, and family support.

Open note →
Do the five stages of grief occur in a required order?03-application / patient-care
Answer

No. Grief is individual and does not follow a predictable sequence.

Open note →
What is Cheyne-Stokes breathing?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Cycles of changing breathing depth with periods of apnea.

Open note →
What is a death rattle?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Noisy breathing caused by pooled respiratory secretions near death.

Open note →
What physical changes may occur as death approaches?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Irregular breathing, mottled skin, reduced alertness, and decreased intake or urine output.

Open note →
Should a CNA force food or fluids on a dying resident?03-application / patient-care
Answer

No. Follow resident wishes, swallowing safety, and the care plan.

Open note →
What should a CNA do when a dying resident shows new signs of discomfort?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Report the symptoms promptly and follow the comfort-care plan.

Open note →
How should a CNA support a resident's spiritual needs?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Respect their beliefs and arrange requested support through the nurse.

Open note →

Patient Refusal of Care

Patient Care / Communication and Psychosocial
3 cards
What should a CNA do if a resident refuses care?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Respect refusal, ensure safety, and report per policy.

Open note →
Can a CNA force routine care because it is in the care plan?03-application / patient-care
Answer

No; respect resident rights and escalate concerns appropriately.

Open note →
What should a CNA do if a resident refuses care while showing signs of a medical emergency?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Respect consent, summon urgent help, and follow emergency procedures without independently overriding refusal.

Open note →

Therapeutic Communication

Patient Care / Communication and Psychosocial
1 cards
Why use open-ended questions when possible?03-application / patient-care
Answer

They encourage the resident to express concerns in their own words.

Open note →

Developmental and Neurological Conditions

Patient Care
6 cards
Does cerebral palsy automatically mean a resident has an intellectual disability?02-mechanisms / patient-care
Answer

No. Intellectual ability varies independently of movement difficulties.

Open note →
What is epilepsy?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

A neurological condition characterized by a tendency to have recurrent seizures.

Open note →
What are common motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Tremor, rigidity, slowed movement, and walking difficulties.

Open note →
How should a CNA communicate with a resident with an intellectual disability?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Use clear communication, allow time, and adapt to the resident's needs.

Open note →
What should a CNA do during a seizure?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Protect the resident from injury and follow the seizure response protocol.

Open note →
Does a mental health diagnosis remove a resident's right to make choices?03-application / patient-care
Answer

No. Support consent, dignity, and individual decision-making.

Open note →

Dysphagia and Aspiration Precautions

Patient Care
5 cards
What is dysphagia?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Difficulty swallowing.

Open note →
What is aspiration?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Food, fluid, or other material entering the airway below the vocal folds.

Open note →
What is silent aspiration?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Aspiration without obvious signs such as coughing.

Open note →
Can thickened liquids completely prevent aspiration?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

No. They do not eliminate aspiration risk.

Open note →
Who determines a resident's appropriate food texture and liquid consistency?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Authorized clinical staff through an individualized care plan.

Open note →

Elimination Care

Patient Care / Elimination
2 cards
What findings during elimination should be reported promptly?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Blood, inability to void, severe pain, or major pattern changes.

Open note →
Why is there no universal 3/4/5-day bowel treatment schedule?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Interventions depend on individual needs, orders, and care plan.

Open note →

Incontinence Care

Patient Care / Elimination
3 cards
What reduces skin injury related to incontinence?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Prompt cleansing, drying, and approved skin protection.

Open note →
Should every resident with incontinence follow a two-hour toileting schedule?03-application / patient-care
Answer

No. Toileting schedules are individualized according to the care plan.

Open note →
Why is gentle skin cleansing important during incontinence care?03-application / patient-care
Answer

It limits irritation and moisture-associated skin damage.

Open note →

Ostomy Care

Patient Care / Elimination
1 cards
What stoma changes should be reported?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Unusual color, bleeding, pain, leakage, or changes in output.

Open note →

Urinary Catheter Care

Patient Care / Elimination
2 cards
Where must a urine drainage bag be positioned?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Below bladder level and off the floor.

Open note →
Why avoid unnecessary catheter-tubing disconnection?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Maintains a closed system and reduces contamination risk.

Open note →

Daily Personal Care and ADLs

Patient Care / Hygiene and Skin Integrity
1 cards
What is the main independence principle for assisting with ADLs?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Encourage the resident to do whatever they can safely do.

Open note →

Skin Integrity and Breakdown Prevention

Patient Care / Hygiene and Skin Integrity
2 cards
Why must reddened pressure areas not be massaged?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Massage may worsen tissue damage.

Open note →
What contributes to pressure or moisture-related skin breakdown?02-mechanisms / patient-care
Answer

Immobility, pressure, shear, moisture, and friction.

Open note →

Fall Risk

Patient Care / Mobility and Rehabilitation
3 cards
Why does fall prevention need individualized plans?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Mobility, cognition, medications, and environmental risks differ.

Open note →
Why is a resident's history of previous falls important?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Previous falls are a strong predictor of future falls.

Open note →
Should a CNA lift a resident immediately after a fall if no injury is visible?03-application / patient-care
Answer

No. Obtain nursing assessment and follow the approved recovery procedure.

Open note →

Limited Mobility

Patient Care / Mobility and Rehabilitation
1 cards
What are common consequences of prolonged immobility?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Skin breakdown, weakness, stiffness, and deconditioning.

Open note →

Prosthetic and Orthotic Care

Patient Care / Mobility and Rehabilitation
3 cards
What must be checked when a resident uses a prosthesis or brace?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Fit, skin pressure, discomfort, and care-plan instructions.

Open note →
What should a CNA do if a prosthetic device causes persistent redness or pain?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Stop or defer use as appropriate, report the concern, and obtain guidance.

Open note →
Who determines necessary adjustments to a poorly fitting prosthesis?03-application / patient-care
Answer

The authorized rehabilitation or prosthetic care team.

Open note →

Restorative and Rehabilitative Care

Patient Care / Mobility and Rehabilitation
1 cards
What is the purpose of restorative care?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Maintain or improve function and independence.

Open note →

Observation and Reporting

Patient Care
7 cards
What is subjective data?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Information reported by the resident about their own experience.

Open note →
What is objective data?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Information that can be directly observed or measured.

Open note →
Is a resident's statement that they are in pain subjective or objective?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

The pain is subjective; the exact statement can be documented as a quote.

Open note →
Why should observations be compared with the resident's baseline?03-application / patient-care
Answer

To recognize meaningful changes in condition.

Open note →
Should a CNA wait until the end of the shift to report chest pain?03-application / patient-care
Answer

No. Report urgently and activate emergency procedures when indicated.

Open note →
What information should a verbal report include?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Resident, concern, time, observations, actions, and response.

Open note →
What should a CNA do if the care plan seems outdated?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Notify the nurse and request clarification.

Open note →

Postsurgical Resident Care

Patient Care
18 cards
What does NWB mean?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

No weight bearing on the affected limb.

Open note →
What does WBAT mean?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Weight bearing as tolerated according to the order.

Open note →
What symptoms after surgery require urgent reporting?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Chest pain, breathing difficulty, significant bleeding, or acute changes.

Open note →
What symptoms suggest possible DVT after surgery?03-application / patient-care
Answer

New one-sided leg swelling, pain, warmth, or discoloration.

Open note →
What symptoms suggest a pulmonary embolism requiring emergency response?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Sudden breathing difficulty, chest pain, fainting, or coughing blood.

Open note →
Are vital signs every four hours and repositioning every two hours universal requirements?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

No. Follow the individualized care plan and assigned schedule.

Open note →
Must bowel sounds return before every postsurgical resident can receive oral intake?03-application / patient-care
Answer

No. Diet progression depends on the procedure and prescribed orders.

Open note →
May a CNA independently advance a postsurgical diet?03-application / patient-care
Answer

No. Follow the prescribed diet order.

Open note →
What is incision splinting?01-foundations / patient-care
Answer

Supporting a surgical incision with a pillow or folded blanket during coughing or movement.

Open note →
What should a CNA do when DVT is suspected?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Promptly notify the nurse; avoid massaging the limb or continuing ambulation until evaluated.

Open note →
Why are coughing and deep-breathing exercises encouraged after surgery?03-application / patient-care
Answer

To help expand the lungs and reduce postoperative respiratory complications.

Open note →
What should a CNA check before repositioning a postsurgical resident?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Activity restrictions, weight-bearing status, surgical drains, tubing, and medical equipment.

Open note →
What should a CNA do if a surgical incision begins to separate?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Stop the activity, protect the area, and summon nursing help immediately.

Open note →
Why is early mobilization encouraged after surgery?03-application / patient-care
Answer

To support circulation, recovery, and reduce complications such as blood clots.

Open note →
What should a CNA monitor when a postsurgical resident resumes eating?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Nausea, vomiting, abdominal discomfort, and tolerance of the prescribed diet.

Open note →
What should a CNA do if a postsurgical resident develops new or worsening pain?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Report the change to the nurse and document observations according to facility policy.

Open note →
Why is urine output important to monitor after surgery?03-application / patient-care
Answer

Changes may indicate problems with hydration, kidney function, or urinary retention.

Open note →
Why might a postsurgical resident use an incentive spirometer?03-application / patient-care
Answer

To encourage slow, deep breaths and help expand the lungs.

Open note →

Assistive and Adaptive Devices

Reference and Guidelines / Clinical Reference
1 cards
What determines selection of an assistive device?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Individual function, safety needs, and the care plan.

Open note →

Defense Mechanisms

Reference and Guidelines / Clinical Reference
1 cards
What is a psychological defense mechanism?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

An often unconscious strategy for coping with anxiety or distress.

Open note →

Effects of Aging - Systems and Clinical Implications

Reference and Guidelines / Clinical Reference
6 cards
Why can age-related changes in multiple systems increase fall risk?02-mechanisms / reference-guidelines
Answer

Reduced muscle strength, sensory changes, and dizziness may affect stability.

Open note →
Why are older adults often more vulnerable to skin injuries?02-mechanisms / reference-guidelines
Answer

Skin may be thinner and more fragile, while reduced mobility increases pressure exposure.

Open note →
Why might respiratory illness be harder to tolerate in older adults?02-mechanisms / reference-guidelines
Answer

Reduced respiratory reserve can limit the ability to compensate.

Open note →
Does normal aging cause dementia or sudden confusion?02-mechanisms / reference-guidelines
Answer

No. These changes require appropriate evaluation.

Open note →
What is the most important comparison when observing an older resident?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

Their current condition versus their usual baseline.

Open note →
Why should a CNA understand changes across multiple body systems?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

To recognize related risks and provide safer, individualized care.

Open note →

Healthcare Measurement Conversions

Reference and Guidelines / Clinical Reference
2 cards
How many milliliters are in one liter?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

1,000 mL.

Open note →
Approximately how many mL are in one US fluid ounce?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

30 mL.

Open note →

Joint Movements and Terminology

Reference and Guidelines / Clinical Reference
2 cards
What is flexion?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Decreasing the angle at a joint.

Open note →
What is abduction?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Movement away from the body's midline.

Open note →

Patient Positions

Reference and Guidelines / Clinical Reference
2 cards
What distinguishes supine from prone?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Supine is lying on the back; prone is lying face down.

Open note →
What is Fowler's position generally?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

A semi-upright to upright position with the head of bed raised.

Open note →

Rehabilitation and Therapy Services

Reference and Guidelines / Clinical Reference
2 cards
What is a common focus of occupational therapy?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Supporting daily activities and functional independence.

Open note →
What is a common focus of physical therapy?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Mobility, strength, balance, and movement.

Open note →

Skin Findings and Terminology

Reference and Guidelines / Clinical Reference
2 cards
What is maceration?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Skin softening and breakdown from prolonged moisture.

Open note →
What is erythema?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Redness of the skin.

Open note →

Therapeutic Diets

Reference and Guidelines / Clinical Reference
6 cards
What is the purpose of a therapeutic diet?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Support individualized medical and nutritional needs.

Open note →
Which grains contain gluten?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Wheat, barley, rye, and triticale.

Open note →
What does NPO mean?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Nothing by mouth unless explicitly authorized.

Open note →
What is the difference between enteral and parenteral nutrition?02-mechanisms / reference-guidelines
Answer

Enteral uses the GI tract; parenteral delivers nutrients intravenously.

Open note →
May a CNA independently advance a postsurgical diet?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

No. Follow the prescribed diet and nursing direction.

Open note →
What should a CNA do when a resident with diabetes misses a meal?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

Notify the nurse promptly and follow the care plan.

Open note →

Vital Sign Ranges

Reference and Guidelines / Clinical Reference
3 cards
What is a commonly taught resting adult pulse range?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

60–100 beats per minute.

Open note →
What is a commonly taught resting adult respiratory range?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

About 12–20 breaths per minute.

Open note →
Why must normal ranges not replace clinical reporting parameters?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

Symptoms, baseline, and ordered thresholds can differ.

Open note →

Bloodborne Pathogens

Reference and Guidelines / Infection Prevention
2 cards
Name three major occupational bloodborne pathogens.01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV.

Open note →
What exposures may transmit bloodborne pathogens?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Contaminated sharps, mucous membranes, or nonintact skin exposure.

Open note →

Chain of Infection

Reference and Guidelines / Infection Prevention
1 cards
Why break a link in the chain of infection?02-mechanisms / reference-guidelines
Answer

To interrupt transmission to a susceptible host.

Open note →

Enhanced Barrier Precautions

Reference and Guidelines / Infection Prevention
1 cards
What is the purpose of enhanced barrier precautions in nursing homes?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Reduce spread of certain MDROs during high-contact resident care.

Open note →

Medical and Surgical Asepsis

Reference and Guidelines / Infection Prevention
1 cards
What is the basic difference between medical and surgical asepsis?02-mechanisms / reference-guidelines
Answer

Medical reduces organisms; surgical seeks to maintain sterility.

Open note →

Standard Precautions

Reference and Guidelines / Infection Prevention
2 cards
To whom do Standard Precautions apply?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

All patients, regardless of known infection status.

Open note →
When should PPE selection be based on anticipated exposure?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

Before care, based on expected contact with blood, fluids, or infectious materials.

Open note →

Transmission-Based Precautions

Reference and Guidelines / Infection Prevention
9 cards
What are the three main transmission-based precaution categories?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Contact, droplet, and airborne.

Open note →
Why are transmission-based precautions used in addition to standard precautions?02-mechanisms / reference-guidelines
Answer

Certain organisms need extra measures based on their transmission route.

Open note →
What is the purpose of a negative-pressure room?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Prevent airborne infectious particles from escaping into surrounding areas.

Open note →
In which direction does air flow in a negative-pressure room?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

From the hallway into the patient room.

Open note →
Which transmission-based precaution typically requires a negative-pressure room?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Airborne Precautions.

Open note →
What does AIIR stand for?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Airborne Infection Isolation Room.

Open note →
Why should the door of a negative-pressure room remain closed?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

To maintain controlled airflow and help contain infectious particles.

Open note →
Does a negative-pressure room replace the need for an N95 respirator?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

No. Required respiratory PPE must still be worn.

Open note →
What is the difference between negative-pressure and positive-pressure rooms?02-mechanisms / reference-guidelines
Answer

Negative pressure contains airborne infection; positive pressure protects vulnerable patients from outside contaminants.

Open note →

Medical Terminology and Abbreviations

Reference and Guidelines
108 cards
What does the prefix "hyper-" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Excessive, increased, or above normal.

Open note →
What does the prefix "hypo-" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Below normal or deficient.

Open note →
What does the prefix "brady-" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Slow.

Open note →
What does the prefix "tachy-" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Fast.

Open note →
What does the prefix "poly-" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Many or multiple.

Open note →
What does the prefix "dys-" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Difficult, impaired, or abnormal.

Open note →
What do the prefixes "a-" and "an-" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Without or absence of.

Open note →
What does the prefix "ab-" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Away from.

Open note →
What does the prefix "ad-" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Near, closer to.

Open note →
What does the prefix "bi-" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Two.

Open note →
What does the prefix "peri-" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Around.

Open note →
What does the prefix "post-" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

After.

Open note →
What does the prefix "pre-" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Before.

Open note →
What does the prefix "sub-" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Under.

Open note →
What does the suffix "-itis" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Inflammation.

Open note →
What does the suffix "-ectomy" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Surgical removal.

Open note →
What does the suffix "-otomy" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Surgical incision.

Open note →
What does the suffix "-logy" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Study of.

Open note →
What does the suffix "-pathy" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Disease or disorder.

Open note →
What does the suffix "-emia" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Blood condition.

Open note →
What does the suffix "-uria" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Urine or urination condition.

Open note →
What does the suffix "-oma" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Tumor.

Open note →
What does the suffix "-osis" mean?01-foundations / prefixes-and-suffixes
Answer

Disease or condition.

Open note →
What does ABD mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Abdomen or abdominal.

Open note →
What does ADL stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Activities of Daily Living.

Open note →
What does AIDS stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome.

Open note →
What does AKA stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Above-Knee Amputation.

Open note →
What does "amb" mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Ambulation or ambulate.

Open note →
What does AROM stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Active Range of Motion.

Open note →
What does BID (bid) mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Twice daily.

Open note →
What does BKA stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Below-Knee Amputation.

Open note →
What does BM stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Bowel Movement.

Open note →
What does BMI stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Body Mass Index.

Open note →
What does BP stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Blood Pressure.

Open note →
What does BRP stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Bathroom Privileges.

Open note →
What can CA or Ca mean in medical terminology?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Cancer or calcium, depending on context.

Open note →
What does cc stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Cubic centimeter; equal to 1 mL.

Open note →
What does C. diff stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

*Clostridioides difficile*.

Open note →
What does CHF stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Congestive Heart Failure.

Open note →
What does CNA stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Certified Nursing Assistant.

Open note →
What does c/o mean in clinical documentation?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Complains of.

Open note →
What does COPD stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease.

Open note →
What does CPR stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation.

Open note →
What does CVA stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Cerebrovascular Accident (stroke).

Open note →
What can d/c mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Discontinue or discharge; ambiguous.

Open note →
What can DC mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Discontinue or discharge; ambiguous.

Open note →
What does DNR stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Do Not Resuscitate.

Open note →
What does DOB stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Date of Birth.

Open note →
What does DON stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Director of Nursing.

Open note →
What does Dx stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Diagnosis.

Open note →
What does ER stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Emergency Room.

Open note →
What does Fx stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Fracture.

Open note →
What does GI stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Gastrointestinal.

Open note →
What does "h" mean in medical notation?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Hour.

Open note →
What does HIV stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Human Immunodeficiency Virus.

Open note →
What does HOB stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Head of Bed.

Open note →
What does hs mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

At bedtime.

Open note →
What does I&O or I & O stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Intake and Output.

Open note →
What does IADL stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Instrumental Activities of Daily Living.

Open note →
What does LPN stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Licensed Practical Nurse.

Open note →
What does LVN stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Licensed Vocational Nurse.

Open note →
What does MD stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Medical Doctor / Physician.

Open note →
What does MI stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Myocardial Infarction (heart attack).

Open note →
What does mL stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Milliliter.

Open note →
What does MRSA stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus.

Open note →
What does NG stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Nasogastric.

Open note →
What does NOC usually refer to in nursing schedules?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Night shift.

Open note →
What does NPO mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Nothing by mouth.

Open note →
What does NSAID stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug.

Open note →
What does N&V stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Nausea and Vomiting.

Open note →
What does O₂ represent?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Oxygen.

Open note →
What does O₂ sat mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Oxygen Saturation.

Open note →
What does OB stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Obstetrics.

Open note →
What does OOB stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Out of Bed.

Open note →
What does OR stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Operating Room.

Open note →
What does OT stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Occupational Therapy or Occupational Therapist.

Open note →
What does PO mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

By mouth / orally.

Open note →
What does PRN mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

As needed.

Open note →
What does PROM stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Passive Range of Motion.

Open note →
What does PT stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Physical Therapy or Physical Therapist.

Open note →
What does Pt or pt commonly mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Patient.

Open note →
What does q mean in medical frequency notation?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Every.

Open note →
What does qd mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Every day; avoid and write "daily."

Open note →
What does qh mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Every hour.

Open note →
What does qhs mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Every night at bedtime.

Open note →
What does qid mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Four times daily.

Open note →
What does qod mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Every other day; avoid and write it in full.

Open note →
What does RN stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Registered Nurse.

Open note →
What does ROM stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Range of Motion.

Open note →
What does SOB stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Shortness of Breath.

Open note →
What does SpO₂ represent?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Peripheral Oxygen Saturation measured by pulse oximetry.

Open note →
What does ST commonly mean in rehabilitation?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Speech Therapy or Speech Therapist.

Open note →
What does Temp stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Temperature.

Open note →
What does TIA stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Transient Ischemic Attack.

Open note →
What does tid mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Three times daily.

Open note →
What does TPN stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Total Parenteral Nutrition.

Open note →
What does TPR stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Temperature, Pulse, Respiration.

Open note →
What does Tx stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Treatment.

Open note →
What does UA stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Urinalysis.

Open note →
What does URI stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Upper Respiratory Infection.

Open note →
What does UTI stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Urinary Tract Infection.

Open note →
What does VRE stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Vancomycin-Resistant Enterococci.

Open note →
What does VS stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Vital Signs.

Open note →
What can w/c mean?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Wheelchair or "with," depending on context.

Open note →
What does WNL stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Within Normal Limits.

Open note →
What does Wt stand for?01-foundations / abbreviations
Answer

Weight.

Open note →
Why should ambiguous medical abbreviations be avoided?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

They can cause misinterpretation and medical errors.

Open note →
What should a CNA do when an abbreviation is unclear?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

Ask for clarification instead of guessing.

Open note →

Abuse, Neglect and Rights Violations

Reference and Guidelines / Professional Practice and Legal
11 cards
What should a CNA do when abuse or neglect is suspected?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

Protect safety and promptly report via required channels.

Open note →
Can reporting suspected abuse to a supervisor replace a CNA's legally required external report?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

No. Mandated-reporting duties are individual.

Open note →
Is proof of elder or dependent adult abuse required before making a mandated report?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

No. Reasonable suspicion is sufficient.

Open note →
Does a CNA need proof of abuse before making a mandated report?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

No. Reasonable suspicion can trigger a reporting duty.

Open note →
Does reporting suspected abuse to a supervisor always satisfy California law?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

No. External reporting may also be required.

Open note →
Can a supervisor prevent a mandated reporter from filing a legally required report?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

No. Reporting duties are individual.

Open note →
What should a CNA do first when witnessing resident abuse?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

Protect immediate safety and summon help without putting anyone at further risk.

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Should a CNA personally investigate suspected abuse?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

No. Report observations and leave formal investigation to authorized personnel.

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What is the usual California LTC verbal abuse-reporting deadline under WIC §15630?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

Immediately or as soon as practicable, no later than 2 hours, with specified exceptions.

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Under federal nursing-facility rules, when must abuse allegations be reported?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

Immediately, no later than 2 hours, to the administrator and required authorities.

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Can an internal incident report replace required external abuse reporting?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

No.

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Chain of Command and Delegation

Reference and Guidelines / Professional Practice and Legal
1 cards
What must a CNA do if delegated a task beyond training or permitted scope?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

Seek clarification and decline unsafe or unauthorized performance.

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CNA Info, Scope and Requirements

Reference and Guidelines / Professional Practice and Legal
1 cards
Does CNA training permit independent nursing diagnosis or treatment planning?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

No; CNAs observe, perform authorized tasks, and report.

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CNA Professionalism and Ethics

Reference and Guidelines / Professional Practice and Legal
1 cards
Why maintain confidentiality?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

To protect resident privacy and trust.

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Employee Rights

Reference and Guidelines / Professional Practice and Legal
1 cards
What should staff do after an occupational exposure?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

Report promptly and follow exposure-control procedures.

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Healthcare Settings and Levels of Care

Reference and Guidelines / Professional Practice and Legal
1 cards
What is the main purpose of skilled nursing care?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Provide nursing and rehabilitation services requiring skilled personnel.

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Reference and Guidelines / Professional Practice and Legal
1 cards
What does informed consent require?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

An informed, voluntary decision by an authorized person.

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Patient Rights

Reference and Guidelines / Professional Practice and Legal
6 cards
Does a resident retain the right to refuse care?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

Yes, subject to applicable legal and clinical processes.

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What should CNAs protect during personal care?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

Privacy, dignity, preferences, and autonomy.

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What is the primary purpose of a Long-Term Care Ombudsman?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Advocate for residents' rights and help address complaints.

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Can residents make complaints without retaliation?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Yes. Residents have the right to raise concerns without retaliation.

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What does informed consent require?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

Appropriate information and a voluntary decision by the person authorized to consent.

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Does HIPAA protect spoken health information?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Yes. The Privacy Rule protects qualifying oral, written, and electronic information.

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Restraints and Alternatives

Reference and Guidelines / Professional Practice and Legal
2 cards
Why should restraints not be used for staff convenience?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

They restrict rights and pose physical and psychological risks.

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What is preferable to unnecessary restraints?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Individualized nonrestrictive safety alternatives.

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Body Mechanics and Injury Prevention

Reference and Guidelines / Safety and Emergencies
1 cards
Why use assistive transfer devices?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

To reduce injury risk for residents and staff.

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Emergency Preparedness and Response

Reference and Guidelines / Safety and Emergencies
1 cards
What is the first priority during a facility emergency?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

Ensure safety and follow the facility response plan.

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Facility and Environmental Safety

Reference and Guidelines / Safety and Emergencies
1 cards
What environmental conditions increase fall or injury risk?01-foundations / reference-guidelines
Answer

Clutter, wet floors, poor lighting, and equipment hazards.

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Workplace Violence and Active Threats

Reference and Guidelines / Safety and Emergencies
1 cards
What should staff prioritize during an active threat?03-application / reference-guidelines
Answer

Immediate safety, alerting others, and following facility emergency procedures.

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